[XeTeX] arabxetex vs. xepersian

[Paul Isambert]

  Le 03/10/2010 13:34, Vafa Khalighi a écrit :
>
>
> On Sun, Oct 3, 2010 at 10:28 PM, Arthur Reutenauer 
> <arthur.reutenauer at normalesup.org 
> <mailto:arthur.reutenauer at normalesup.org>> wrote:
>
>     On Sun, Oct 03, 2010 at 10:15:34PM +1100, Vafa Khalighi wrote:
>     > Its Persian not Farsi. Farsi is the fake name that arabs give to our
>     > language as they have no "p".
>
>      Vafa, what did we say about making such statements on a public
>     mailing-list?
>
>
> As an Iranian Zoroastrian, I could not ignore my feelings. Sorry. but 
> I did not say anything offensive, I just said that Farsi is fake. You 
> should read some history.
"Persian" is an English pronunciation, "Farsi" an Arabic one. Both 
derive from the same word. I can't see why one is fake and not the 
other. Like saying the real name of French is Französich, for some 
reason having to do with German phonetics...

Plus in good phonology, if there's no "p" then you can't consider that 
"f" represents the sound /f/; it represents an archiphonem of both /p/ 
and /f/. So it's "parsi" after all.

Paul
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