[XeTeX] arabxetex vs. xepersian

Vafa Khalighi vafakhlgh at gmail.com
Sun Oct 3 13:51:56 CEST 2010

"Persian" is an English pronunciation, "Farsi" an Arabic one. Both derive
from the same word. I can't see why one is fake and not the other. Like
saying the real name of French is Französich, for some reason having to do
with German phonetics...

We say Parsi, the international community says Persian. History says
Persian, where does Farsi come from? As I said before, you should read some
history before commenting unwisely? at least you know that arabs have tried
their best to change the name of "Persian gulf" into Arabian gulf but they
always have failed to do so.

> Plus in good phonology, if there's no "p" then you can't consider that "f"
> represents the sound /f/; it represents an archiphonem of both /p/ and /f/.
> So it's "parsi" after all.

به نام خداوند جان و خرد          کزین برتر اندیشه برنگذرد
-------------- next part --------------
An HTML attachment was scrubbed...
URL: <http://tug.org/pipermail/xetex/attachments/20101003/19de79a6/attachment.html>

More information about the XeTeX mailing list