[math-font-discuss] \mathbf and \bm in superscripts

[Christina Thiele]

Below is a wee testfile which is self-explanatory -- that is, what the 
coding `curiosity' is. What the actual explanation is -- that's what I'm 
looking for ;-)

Does anyone know why this is so?

I'm not a subscriber to this list -- I just found it looking through the 
lists accessible via www.tug.org. Please cc your replies to

    cthiele at ccs.carleton.ca

Thanks in advance,

Ch.

=====================================


\documentclass{article}

\usepackage{bm}

\begin{document}

     Why can you get away with just \verb|\mathbf{...}| in

         $$x^\mathbf{T}$$

     but when using the bm package, you have to use \verb|{\bm{...}}|

        $$x^{\bm{T}}$$

That is, \mathbf doesn't have to be inside a group to the superscript, 
yet \bm does have to be enclosed in braces.

The _Companion_ (2nd ed.) is silent on this -- yet on p.510 in an 
extensive bit of verbatim the 4th line shows \bm in a subscript inside a 
set of curly braces:

                        ... \bfB_{\bm{1}}

And I didn't find anything in the bm documentation -- but it's always 
possible that I didn't read the right section ...

\end{document}

%% END OF FILE