[XeTeX] Interaction of Mapping and hyphenation

[Yannis Haralambous]

I had the following idea:

U+0643 is a kaf, U+200D is a zero-width joiner

if I send, by a mapping, 

U+0643 U+0643 > U+0643 U+200D U+200D U+0643

i.e., if I artificially introduce two zero-width joiners between kaf and kaf

and then if I write a hyphenation pattern

^^^^0643^^^^200d1^^^^200d^^^^0643

it should, at least theoretically, hyphenate between the zero-width joiners and
I would get ^^^^0643^^^^200d- on the upper line
and ^^^^200d^^^^0643 on the lower line, and that would solve the Uyghur problem.

Only I tried it and it doesn't work.

Is the mapping not applied before hyphenation?

Thanks for telling me what is going on

Cheers

Yannis


 <http://www.imt-atlantique.fr/>	Yannis HARALAMBOUS
Professor
Computer Science Department
UMR CNRS 6285 Lab-STICC
 <http://perso.telecom-bretagne.eu/yannisharalambous/> <https://twitter.com/y_haralambous> <https://www.linkedin.com/in/yannis-haralambous-5529073?trk=hp-identity-name>Technopôle Brest-Iroise CS 83818
29238 Brest Cedex 3, France
Une école de l'IMT <http://www.imt.fr/>
Is it writing? N-no. It doesn't mean what it looks like.     (Lewis Padgett)



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