[XeTeX] How do mapping files affect hyphenation?

Mojca Miklavec mojca.miklavec.lists at gmail.com
Sun Mar 4 21:53:58 CET 2012

On Fri, Feb 24, 2012 at 13:25, Ulrike Fischer wrote:
> In tex.stackexchange there is currently a discussion about the
> hyphenation of text "translittered" with the help of a mapping file.
> http://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/45570/using-xetex-for-automatic-transliteration-of-cyrillic-letters
> >From an old discussion on the mailing list
> (http://tug.org/mailman/htdig/xetex/2005-November/002842.html) I got
> the impression that mappings are "invisible" to the hyphenation
> routine and so I would have expected the translittered text to be
> hyphenated according the original russian rules but actually it is
> not hyphenated at all:
> \documentclass{article}
> \usepackage{fontspec}
> \setmainfont[Ligatures=TeX]{Linux Libertine O}
> \usepackage{polyglossia}
> \setmainlanguage{russian}
> \newfontfamily{\transrussian}[Mapping=cyrillic-to-latin]{Linux
> Libertine O}

It is off-topic, but I just wanted to add that the original question
was about Serbian and Serbian *does* contain patterns in both scripts,
so Serbian should work for the original author.

Judging from the fact that XeTeX hyphenates "2019 when user enters
single quote, XeTeX should hyphenate the end result, not the the user
input. I would use transliteration to enter ASCII and get complex
Indic output for example (not that I read any of those scripts) in
which case Indic should be hyphenated, not ASCII (but I understand
what you wanted to point out).


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