[XeTeX] How do mapping files affect hyphenation?
khaledhosny at eglug.org
Fri Feb 24 15:18:49 CET 2012
On Fri, Feb 24, 2012 at 02:22:15PM +0100, Ulrike Fischer wrote:
> Am Fri, 24 Feb 2012 13:40:53 +0100 schrieb Zdenek Wagner:
> >> From an old discussion on the mailing list
> >> (http://tug.org/mailman/htdig/xetex/2005-November/002842.html) I got
> >> the impression that mappings are "invisible" to the hyphenation
> >> routine and so I would have expected the translittered text to be
> >> hyphenated according the original russian rules but actually it is
> >> not hyphenated at all:
> > Do the Russian hyphenation patterns contain patterns for the Latin
> > script?
> Well I would say, obviously not.
> But my question is if "...font mappings (unlike traditional
> TFM-based ligatures) are completely invisible to TeX's line-breaking
I understand this as that the line-breaking process sees the result of
the mapping with no reference to its origin, so a “b” input by the user
and a “b” resulting from a mapping are both identical.
More information about the XeTeX