Behaviour of \latinfamily
Sebastian Rahtz
s.rahtz@elsevier.co.uk
Tue, 26 May 1998 13:46:54 +0100
Rebecca and Rowland writes:
> Ha ha very funny. Done that. Makes no sense to me at all. If it did make
> any sense to me, I wouldn't be asking, would I?
it must make *some* sense....
>
> Goes via 8a what exactly? afm, mtx, pl? And what other files does it look
> for?
Ulrik explains this better than me. first afm, then mtx
> Very good. I've looked at that macro and I can't work out what it does. I
> can understand virtually none of the fontinst source code. Can you explain?
ask again if Ulrik's note was unclear
> Under what circumstances exactly? I've never seen it do the {ui}{it}
> substitution.
because shape ui is not requested by \latin_family. it only asks for
\def\latin_shapes{
\latin_shape{} {} {} {n}
\latin_shape{c}{c}{} {sc}
\latin_shape{o}{o}{} {sl}
\latin_shape{i}{i}{i}{it}
}
so he ui=it substitution is never activated.
you are screaming now, aren't you?
sebastian