Behaviour of \latinfamily

Sebastian Rahtz s.rahtz@elsevier.co.uk
Tue, 26 May 1998 13:46:54 +0100


Rebecca and Rowland writes:
 > Ha ha very funny.  Done that.  Makes no sense to me at all.  If it did make
 > any sense to me, I wouldn't be asking, would I?
it must make *some* sense....
 > 
 > Goes via 8a what exactly?  afm, mtx, pl?  And what other files does it look
 > for?
Ulrik explains this better than me. first afm, then mtx

 > Very good.  I've looked at that macro and I can't work out what it does.  I
 > can understand virtually none of the fontinst source code.  Can you explain?
ask again if Ulrik's note was unclear

 > Under what circumstances exactly?  I've never seen it do the {ui}{it}
 > substitution.
because shape ui is not requested by \latin_family. it only asks for

\def\latin_shapes{
   \latin_shape{} {} {} {n} 
   \latin_shape{c}{c}{} {sc} 
   \latin_shape{o}{o}{} {sl} 
   \latin_shape{i}{i}{i}{it} 
} 


so he ui=it substitution is never activated.

you are screaming now, aren't you?

sebastian