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Vafa Khalighi wrote:
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What is the historical name of the language of Persian nation in the
west? is it Farsi or Persian? Was it Persian empire or Farsian Empire?<br>
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Persian, as you well know. But now we are asked to call the country
"Iran",<br>
and the people "Iranian", so preferred names can change. And while it
is<br>
most certainly not for me to say whether "Persian" or "Farsi" is the
better name<br>
for the language today, if there is disagreement amongst the Iranian
people<br>
themselves then all is not as clear-cut as it might be.<br>
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But if the Persian name for the Persian language is, in
transliteration, <big><i><span><font size="2"><big>Fārsī</big></font></span></i></big>,
<br>
is it really logical for the Persian nation (or should I here be
writing "Iranian" ? <br>
This is quite a linguistic minefield) to seek to tell the West that
while it <br>
is perfectly normal for a Persian (Iranian) to call his language <big><i><span><font
size="2"><big>Fārsī</big></font></span></i></big>, we
in the <br>
west must call it Persian ?!<br>
<br>
Why not? <br>
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What gives the people of one nation the right to tell the people of
another<br>
nation what the latter must call the language of the former ? The
people<br>
from the Netherlands don't seek to tell us we must call their language<br>
"Nederlands"; they know that we call it "Dutch", and their country
"Holland",<br>
and even if both of these are indefensible in terms of logic, it is
simply<br>
the <i>status quo</i>.<br>
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** Phil.<br>
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