# [OS X TeX] magnification

juan tolosa juantolo at me.com
Sat Mar 1 02:14:02 CET 2014

Hi Ross,
Yes, I printed out the outputs---with and without "\magstep1"---and compared them; they look identical.

I think I tried \magstep2 as well; I am not sure about \magstep3.  I will try it next time I am at work.

Also, I will put the \magstep declaration at the very top of the document, just in case (I don't know how else to bypass other pre-defined magnifications,
my ignorance is vast).

What I find baffling is, it works nicely in the Mac (and did work in other PC platforms, such as PC TeX).

Thanks,
Juan

On Feb 28, 2014, at 8:05 PM, Ross Moore wrote:

> Hello Juan,
>
> On 01/03/2014, at 11:17 AM, juan tolosa wrote:
>
>> Hi Herb,
>>
>> Yes, I am using plain TeX. I have just tried the following minimal example in the PC at work, and the \magstep1 is ignored. I tried the same file in the mac at home, and the \magstep1 works. In the PC I am using Te works within MikTeX 2.9.
>
> Are you absolutely sure that it does not work?
> The viewer may be rescaling, so you don't detect the difference so easily.
> Test with \magstep3 or similar, where the change should be more pronounced.
> Try printing the output both with and without the \magstep .
>
> If none of these helps, one clue is that the TeXBook states:
>
>   "You cannot apply two different magnifications to the same document."
>
> Furthermore, the \magnification "must be given before the first page
> of output has been created."
>
> So if your  plain.fmt  has already specified a \magnification, then a later
> use does nothing.
> I would doubt that MikTeX has done this; but stranger things have happened.
>
>
>>
>> Thank you,
>>                        Juan
>>
>> %%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%
>> \def\rect#1#2{\leavevmode\vbox{\hrule \hbox{\vrule
>> height#1 \hskip#2 \vrule} \hrule}}
>> \parindent=0pt
>>
>> \magnification\magstep1
>>
>> \centerline{\bf Minimal example of magstep one.''}
>>
>> \medskip
>> %________________________________________________________
>> {\bf 1.}
>>            %
>>            %
>> Prove that the function
>> $$f(x, y) = {x^2 \over x^2 + y^2}$$
>> has no limit as $(x, y) \to (0,0)$.
>> %
>> Provide a {\it clear and complete argument}.
>>
>> \samepage
>> %________________________________________________________________
>>
>> {\bf 2.}
>>            %
>> Compute $f_{xx} + f_{yy}$ for the function $f$ given by the formula
>> $$f(x, y) = {1 \over x^2 + y} .$$
>> %
>> Provide clear, complete, and neat calculations.
>>
>>
>> \bye
>
>
> Certainly this works fine on a Mac.
>
> Cheers
>
> 	Ross
>
> ------------------------------------------------------------------------
> Ross Moore                                       ross.moore at mq.edu.au
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