[OS X TeX] magnification
juan tolosa
juantolo at me.com
Sat Mar 1 02:14:02 CET 2014
Hi Ross,
Yes, I printed out the outputs---with and without "\magstep1"---and compared them; they look identical.
I think I tried \magstep2 as well; I am not sure about \magstep3. I will try it next time I am at work.
Also, I will put the \magstep declaration at the very top of the document, just in case (I don't know how else to bypass other pre-defined magnifications,
my ignorance is vast).
What I find baffling is, it works nicely in the Mac (and did work in other PC platforms, such as PC TeX).
Thanks,
Juan
On Feb 28, 2014, at 8:05 PM, Ross Moore wrote:
> Hello Juan,
>
> On 01/03/2014, at 11:17 AM, juan tolosa wrote:
>
>> Hi Herb,
>>
>> Yes, I am using plain TeX. I have just tried the following minimal example in the PC at work, and the \magstep1 is ignored. I tried the same file in the mac at home, and the \magstep1 works. In the PC I am using Te works within MikTeX 2.9.
>
> Are you absolutely sure that it does not work?
> The viewer may be rescaling, so you don't detect the difference so easily.
> Test with \magstep3 or similar, where the change should be more pronounced.
> Try printing the output both with and without the \magstep .
>
> If none of these helps, one clue is that the TeXBook states:
>
> "You cannot apply two different magnifications to the same document."
>
> Furthermore, the \magnification "must be given before the first page
> of output has been created."
>
> So if your plain.fmt has already specified a \magnification, then a later
> use does nothing.
> I would doubt that MikTeX has done this; but stranger things have happened.
>
>
>>
>> Thank you,
>> Juan
>>
>> %%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%
>> \def\rect#1#2{\leavevmode\vbox{\hrule \hbox{\vrule
>> height#1 \hskip#2 \vrule} \hrule}}
>> \parindent=0pt
>> \def \gradebox{\rightline{\rlap{\quad \rect{0.3in}{0.3in}}}}
>> \def\samepage{\vfill\gradebox\smallskip\hrule height0.5pt\medskip}
>>
>> \magnification\magstep1
>>
>> \centerline{\bf Minimal example of ``magstep one.''}
>>
>> \medskip
>> %________________________________________________________
>> {\bf 1.}
>> %
>> %
>> Prove that the function
>> $$ f(x, y) = {x^2 \over x^2 + y^2} $$
>> has no limit as $(x, y) \to (0,0)$.
>> %
>> Provide a {\it clear and complete argument}.
>>
>> \samepage
>> %________________________________________________________________
>>
>> {\bf 2.}
>> %
>> Compute $f_{xx} + f_{yy}$ for the function $f$ given by the formula
>> $$ f(x, y) = {1 \over x^2 + y} . $$
>> %
>> Provide clear, complete, and neat calculations.
>>
>> {\vfill\gradebox\eject\end}
>>
>> \bye
>
>
> Certainly this works fine on a Mac.
>
> Cheers
>
> Ross
>
> ------------------------------------------------------------------------
> Ross Moore ross.moore at mq.edu.au
> Mathematics Department office: E7A-206
> Macquarie University tel: +61 (0)2 9850 8955
> Sydney, Australia 2109 fax: +61 (0)2 9850 8114
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